MBBS4 😎

Answer the Questions Below

What is atherosclerosis?

What is the primary cause (aetiology) of atherosclerosis?

What are the non-coronary causes of ischemic heart disease (IHD)?

What inflammatory mediators are involved in the formation of unstable plaques?

Which marker is most sensitive for detecting atherosclerosis?

What is the first step in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?

Describe the gross and microscopic morphology of hypertension (HTN).

What is the pathophysiology of hypertension on kidney appearance?

What type of hypertension causes this kidney appearance?

What is the colloquial term for a kidney affected by hypertension?

What are the features of each grade of hypertensive retinopathy?

Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis?

Smoking Diabetes Family History Hypertension High Cholesterol

What is the main complication of chronic ischemic heart disease (IHD)?

Hypertension (HTN) Heart failure (HF) Myocardial infarction (MI) Arrhythmias

At what percentage of blockage in coronary atherosclerosis do symptoms typically appear, and what factors contribute to the symptoms?

50% blockage, due to high blood pressure and blood clotting 60% blockage, due to increased cholesterol levels 70% blockage, due to lactic acid and bradykinin 80% blockage, due to inflammation and oxidative stress

Atherosclerosis is classified as which type of arteriosclerosis?

Microangiopathy Macroangiopathy

Which vessels are most commonly affected by atherosclerosis?

Pulmonary veins Coronary arteries Hepatic veins Lymphatic vessels

Which of the following is a coronary cause of ischemic heart disease (IHD) that accounts for 90% of cases?

Severe anemia Tachycardia Atherosclerosis Aortic stenosis (AS)

Which statement about a stable plaque is true?

Lipid core is larger than the fibrous cap Prone to rupture and cause embolism Fibrous cap is larger than the lipid core No calcification

What is the first macroscopic feature of atherosclerosis?

Central necrotic core Intimal ulceration Fatty streaks Foam cell necrosis

Given a blood pressure of 155/99, what type of hypertension does the patient have?

Normal Grade 1 (mild) Grade 2 (moderate) Grade 3 (severe) Isolated systolic hypertension

What are the causes of right-sided/pulmonary hypertension and their associated complications?

Right-sided hypertrophy (RVH) in chronic lung disorders Chronic: Cor-Pulmonale in chronic lung disorders, Acute: Pulmonary Embolism Acute: Cor-Pulmonale, Chronic: Pulmonary Embolism Right-sided hypertrophy (RVH) due to congestive heart failure

What are the types of arteriolosclerosis and their associated features?

Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis - Protein deposition (typical of DM) Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis - Protein deposition (typical of DM), Hyperplastic Arteriolosclerosis - Smooth muscle hyperplasia & fibrosis (typical of HTN) Hyperplastic Arteriolosclerosis - Protein deposition (typical of DM) Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis - Smooth muscle hyperplasia & fibrosis (typical of HTN)

What is the relationship between STEMI and NSTEMI in terms of infarct location?

STEMI - Subendocardial infarction, NSTEMI - Transmural infarction STEMI - Transmural infarction, NSTEMI - Subendocardial infarction STEMI - Subendocardial infarction, NSTEMI - Myocardial ischemia STEMI - Myocardial ischemia, NSTEMI - Transmural infarction

What are the physiological responses to high blood pressure that help decrease it?

ANP, BNP - diuresis Aldosterone - sodium retention Renin - vasoconstriction ADH - vasodilation

List the other causes of MI that are not atherosclerosis.

Time Period: < 4 hours

MI - GROSS:

Normal
normal w loss of glycogen
Yellow center, red border
Pale grey, thin red border

MI - MICROSCOPY:

loss of glycogen only, appears normal
Necrosis + Macrophages phagocytosing dead cells
Granulation tissue, macrophages, BV fibroblasts, collagen
Dense fibrosis (mature scar)

Time Period: 1-3 days

MI - GROSS:

Normal (loss of glycogen)
Recent dark red area
Yellow center, red border
Pale grey, thin red border

MI - MICROSCOPY:

Coagulative necrosis (normal shape but no nucleus), Hemorrhage, Neutrophils
Necrosis + Macrophages phagocytosing dead cells
Granulation tissue, macrophages, BV fibroblasts, collagen
Dense fibrosis (mature scar)

Time Period: < 2 weeks

MI - GROSS:

Normal (loss of glycogen)
Recent dark red area
Yellow center, red border
Pale grey, thin red border

MI - MICROSCOPY:

Time Period: < 8 weeks

MI - GROSS:

Normal (loss of glycogen)
Recent dark red area
Yellow center, red border
Pale grey, thin red border

MI - MICROSCOPY:

Time Period: > 8 weeks

MI - GROSS:

Normal (loss of glycogen)
Recent dark red area
Yellow center, red border
small white scar

MI - MICROSCOPY:

List 3 chronic complications of MI:

List 3 acute complications of MI:

List 3 causes of Mitral Regurgitation:

2. What is shown?

Unstable Plaque Stable Plaque Fibrous Plaque Calcified Plaque

3. What is shown?

Complex Plaque Atherosclerotic Plaque Stable Plaque Thrombotic Plaque

4. What is shown and what does it tell you about the disease time course?

MI <24 hours old. Red myocytes, pyknotic nucleus, inflammatory cells. Hemorrhage around BV. MI 48-72 hours old. Extensive fibrosis, minimal inflammation. Chronic MI. Dense collagen deposition and no inflammatory cells. Acute MI with coagulative necrosis, but no inflammatory cells or hemorrhage.

5. What is shown and what does it tell you about the disease time course?

Dense collagen bundles. Old MI >8 weeks Acute MI. Evidence of necrosis and hemorrhage. Subacute MI (2-4 weeks). Fibrosis with minimal inflammation. Chronic MI with extensive calcification and fibrosis.

6. What is shown here?

Fatty Streak Fibrous Plaque Stable Plaque Atherosclerotic Plaque with necrosis

7. What is shown here and what are 3 key features?

Stable Plaque. Thick fibrous cap, lipid core, inflammatory cells Unstable Plaque. Thin fibrous cap, lipid core, hemorrhage Complex Plaque. Heavy calcification, minimal inflammatory cells Atherosclerotic Plaque. Thin cap, no lipid core, no inflammatory cells

1. List three indications for Cardiac Rehabilitation:

2. List three absolute contraindications for Cardiac Rehabilitation:

3. List three benefits of Cardiac Rehabilitation:

4. List three components of Cardiac Rehabilitation:

What are the high-risk criteria in the QLD suspected ACS pathway?

Ongoing chest pain, runs of VT/VF, haemodynamically unstable (hypotensive) Previous MI, ATSI, another episode of pain UA with no troponin rise Normal results on ECG and troponin

What actions should be taken for high-risk criteria in the QLD suspected ACS pathway?

Reperfuse, continuous cardiac monitoring, admit to CCU/HDU, refer to interventional cardiology Discharge for GP follow-up, typically for EST Consider PCI, refer to inpatient exercise stress testing No actions necessary, monitor vitals regularly

What are the intermediate-risk criteria in the QLD suspected ACS pathway?

Ongoing chest pain, runs of VT/VF, hypotensive Previous MI, ATSI, another episode of pain UA with no troponin rise Normal results on ECG and troponin

What actions should be taken for intermediate-risk criteria in the QLD suspected ACS pathway?

Reperfuse, continuous cardiac monitoring, admit to CCU/HDU Consider PCI, refer to inpatient exercise stress testing Discharge for GP follow-up No actions necessary, monitor vitals regularly

What are the low-risk criteria in the QLD suspected ACS pathway?

Previous MI, ATSI, another episode of pain UA with no troponin rise Ongoing chest pain, runs of VT/VF, hypotensive Normal results on ECG and troponin

What actions should be taken for low-risk criteria in the QLD suspected ACS pathway?

Reperfuse, continuous cardiac monitoring, admit to CCU/HDU Discharge for GP follow-up → typically for EST with referral to cardiology outpatient for angiogram Consider PCI, refer to inpatient exercise stress testing No actions necessary, monitor vitals regularly

How soon must PCI (Percutaneous Coronary Intervention) be performed after diagnosis?

Within 30 minutes of diagnosis Within 60 minutes of diagnosis Within 90 minutes of diagnosis Within 120 minutes of diagnosis

What are 3 essential criteria for thrombolysis?

Chest pain > 15 minutes and < 24 hours, ST elevation or new LBBB, can be treated with pPCI Chest pain > 30 minutes and < 12 hours, ST depression, MI not likely from history Chest pain > 30 minutes and < 12 hours, ST elevation or new presumed LBBB, MI likely from history, Cannot be treated with pPCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact Chest pain > 10 minutes and < 6 hours, ST elevation, can be treated with pPCI within 90 minutes

What are 2 absolute contraindications to PCI?

Severe hypertension, renal failure High bleeding risk (thrombocytopenia, peptic ulcer, severe coagulopathy), multiple percutaneous coronary intervention restenosis Uncontrolled diabetes, advanced age Active myocardial infarction, severe hypotension

What is the primary difference between hypertensive urgency and hypertensive emergency?

Hypertensive urgency involves a blood pressure increase >180/110 without signs of organ damage, while hypertensive emergency involves a blood pressure increase >220/140 with signs of acute organ damage Hypertensive urgency requires immediate treatment to lower blood pressure, while hypertensive emergency does not require urgent intervention Hypertensive urgency occurs only in individuals over 65, while hypertensive emergency can affect individuals of all ages Hypertensive urgency involves no risk to organs, while hypertensive emergency leads to immediate organ failure if left untreated

Which of the following are first-line pharmacotherapies for hypertension?

ACE inhibitors (ACEI), Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARB), Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (DHP CCB), Thiazide diuretics Beta-blockers, Alpha blockers, Potassium-sparing diuretics Direct vasodilators, Loop diuretics, Spironolactone ACE inhibitors (ACEI), Calcium channel blockers (non-DHP), Loop diuretics

What is the recommended follow-up schedule for individuals with cardiovascular risk?

Close monitoring and follow-up every 6–12 months Follow-up only every 2 years Monthly visits for intensive monitoring Follow-up every 5 years

Which of the following CVD risk factors is most important for monitoring in diabetic patients?

HbA1c and time since diagnosis of diabetes Age and sex Smoking status and family history Atrial fibrillation and BMI

What is the recommended management approach for individuals at high cardiovascular risk (greater than 10%)?

Intensive lifestyle interventions and pharmacological treatment (statins, antihypertensives, aspirin in some cases) Lifestyle changes alone, with no need for pharmacological treatment Close monitoring only every 2 years Immediate surgery for risk reduction

Which of the following is a key lifestyle factor for managing cardiovascular risk?

Physical activity Gender Age Family history of heart disease

Which of the following is a cardiovascular risk factor specifically relevant to people with diabetes?

Ratio of total cholesterol to HDL Chronic kidney disease Family history of CVD Smoking status

Which of the following is **not** an exclusion criterion for cardiovascular risk assessment?

Patients with established CVD (managed differently) Individuals with high cholesterol only Individuals with short life expectancy or severe comorbidities Young adults with no risk factors

Who should undergo cardiovascular risk assessment for individuals without known cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

All people aged 45–79 years, people with diabetes aged 35–79 years, and First Nations people aged 30–79 years People aged 18–45 years, with or without risk factors People aged 25–45 years with family history of CVD Individuals aged 30–50 years without any risk factors

Cholesterol has various roles in the body. Which of the following is a true statement about cholesterol?

Cholesterol is always harmful to the body. Cholesterol is only harmful in excess; HDL is good, while LDL is bad. HDL and LDL are both equally beneficial to health. Cholesterol is essential but doesn't have a role in disease processes.

1. What are cardiac causes of Acute Pulmonary Oedema (APO)?

Myocardial Infarction (MI), Left-Sided Heart Failure (LSHF), Hypertensive emergency Aortic Dissection, Pulmonary Embolism, Myocarditis Arrhythmia, Cardiomyopathy, Valvular heart disease Severe Anemia, Chronic Kidney Disease, Hypervolemia

2. What are respiratory causes of Acute Pulmonary Oedema (APO)?

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), Pneumonia Pulmonary Embolism, Chronic Bronchitis Asthma Exacerbation, Cystic Fibrosis Interstitial Lung Disease, Emphysema

3. What's the age of peak incidence for Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF) in Indigenous Australians?

15-20 years 0-5 years 5-14 years 20-30 years

4. List 4 features that make someone at high risk of contracting Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF).

5. Describe the pathogenesis of Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF).

6. Describe the pathophysiology of ARF. Fill in the symptom associated with the condition.

pancarditis → murmur autoimmune-mediated basal ganglia damage → pro-inflammatory cytokines → myocardial ischemia → angina

7. What are 4 specific microscopic features of pericarditis?

Fibrinoid necrosis, Anitschkow/caterpillar cell, Aschoff body, Giant multinucleated cells Granulomas, Eosinophilic infiltration, Macrophage proliferation Fibrosis, Necrotizing vasculitis, Hemorrhagic effusion Fibroblastic growth, Collagen deposition, Hemorrhagic necrosis

8. What is an Aschoff body?

9. Describe the clinical features of Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF).

10. Describe the diagnostic criteria of definite Rheumatic Fever (ARF).

2 major OR 1 major and 2 minor or 3 minor manifestations (if recurrent) with evidence of preceding GAS infection 3 major manifestations with no evidence of any GAS infection 1 major and 1 minor manifestation with evidence of any previous infection Only lab evidence of streptococcal infection

11. What are the minor manifestations of ARF for a high-risk group individual?

Temp >38.5C, Monoarthralgia, ESR or CRP >30, Prolonged PR interval Rash, Fever, Small joint pain, Tachycardia Joint swelling, Muscle weakness, Fatigue Hypertension, Cheyne-Stokes respiration

12. How do the minor manifestations of ARF compare to the low-risk group?

Must have polyarthralgia or aseptic monoarthritis, ESR >60 Must have polyarthralgia or aseptic monoarthritis, ESR >60 Must have fever with rash and fatigue Must have a history of rheumatic fever only

13. What is the test that can diagnose Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD)?

14. What is the test that indicates GAS infection?

15. What does a mitral valve with Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD) look like?

16. What are the 5 steps in management for Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD)?

17. What are some considerations when planning valve interventions?

18. What are 3 complications of Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD)?

19. What is primordial, primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention of ARF?

20. Describe the pathogenesis of heart failure.

mechanical dysfunction → systolic dysfunction (impaired ventricular contractility) → HFrEF mechanical dysfunction → systolic dysfunction (impaired ventricular contractility) → HFrEF; diastolic dysfunction (impaired ventricular relaxation) → HFpEF myocyte dysfunction → excess fluid accumulation → heart failure valve dysfunction leading to volume overload → heart failure

21. What are the compensatory mechanisms in heart failure?

22. What happens in decompensation?

SNS stimulation → adrenergic desensitization and ↑ O2 demand; RAAS activation → overwhelm Frank-Starling mechanism The body compensates effectively without any adverse effects Fluid overload leads to pulmonary congestion only No changes occur in decompensation

23. What is the change in the liver in congestive heart failure? Why does it appear this way?

Nutmeg liver due to congestion around central veins of liver lobules Nutmeg liver due to congestion around central veins of liver lobules Liver functions normally without any change Hepatomegaly due to increased fat deposition

24. What is level 2 vs level 3 on the NYHA level of clinical impairment scale?

Level 2: ordinary physical activity results in undue breathlessness; level 3: less than usual activity results in undue breathlessness Level 2: any physical activity results in severe breathlessness Level 3: breathing is normal without any exertion Level 2: no limitations at all in physical activity

25. What is the pharmacological long-term treatment guideline for heart failure?

List 5 findings you’d find on an X-ray in heart failure.

26. What are 3 mechanisms by which you could get a defective aortic valve?

Calcific from wear and tear, ARF endocardial inflammation, congenital bicuspid valve Calcific from wear and tear, infective endocarditis, Marfan syndrome Structural abnormality, Infective Endocarditis, Myocardial Ischemia All answers are correct

27. What does Aortic stenosis sound like?

High-pitched mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur with a thrill High-pitched mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur with an ejection click Low-pitched diastolic murmur Continuous murmur throughout systole and diastole

28. How can you better auscultate Aortic Stenosis and where does it radiate to?

Loudest over the aortic area when sitting forwards on expiration; radiates to the carotid arteries Loudest over the pulmonary area and does not radiate Loudest when lying supine, radiating to the shoulder Loudest over the epigastrum, with radiation to the back

29. What conditions cause pulmonary valve stenosis?

Congenital Tetralogy of Fallot, Rheumatic Heart Disease Congenital Tetralogy of Fallot, Right Heart Failure Pulmonary Hypertension, Left Ventricular Hypertrophy Myocardial Infarction, Coronary Artery Disease

30. What does a pulmonary stenosis sound like?

High-pitched systolic murmur with a thrill High-pitched midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur with an ejection click Low-pitched diastolic murmur Continuous murmur throughout systole

31. What does mitral regurgitation sound like?

High-pitched blowing holosystolic murmur Low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur Systolic ejection murmur Continuous murmur during diastole

32. What conditions cause MR?

33. What conditions cause AR?

34. What does AR sound like?

High-pitched blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur High-pitched blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur Continuous murmur during systole Systolic ejection murmur

35. Where is AR heard the loudest?

Aortic area Left sternal edge Apex of the heart Pulmonary area

36. What are physical signs associated with AR?

Water hammer collapsing pulse, Displaced hyperdynamic apex beat Cyanosis, Clubbing Loud S1, S3 gallop Jugular venous distention

37. What is the pathogenesis of MS?

ARF → turbulent blood flow over inflamed valves → PLT and fibrin deposition (sterile thrombus) → chronic inflammation/scarring → fibrotic mitral valve Infective endocarditis causing valve rupture Ischemia leading to myocardial damage All answers are correct

38. What does MS sound like and where is it best heard?

Low-pitched rumbling mid-diastolic murmur with an opening snap; loudest over the apex in the left lateral decubitus position on expiration High-pitched systolic murmur Continuous murmur throughout the cardiac cycle None, it cannot be auscultated

39. Describe the pathogenesis of Infective Endocarditis (IE).

40. What are the major criteria for the modified Duke criteria for diagnosis of IE?

2 x positive blood cultures 12 hours apart, Echo evidence of endocardial involvement Unexplained fever and anorexia Single positive blood culture with physical examination findings Laboratory evidence of streptococcal infection

41. List the common causes of atrial fibrillation (AF).

42. What does the CHA2DS2VASc score measure?

Risk of thromboembolic event Risk of thromboembolic event Risk of bleeding events Risk of acute coronary syndrome

43. What does HASBLED measure?

Risk of bleeding events Risk of thromboembolic events Risk of acute myocardial infarction Risk of sudden cardiac death

44. What are causes of Aortic Regurgitation (AR) other than Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD)?

Infective Endocarditis (IE), Syphilis Aortic Dissection, Marfan Syndrome Myocardial Infarction, Familial Hypercholesterolemia Diastolic Heart Failure, Cor pulmonale

45. What is one cause of Mitral Regurgitation (MR) other than RHD?

46. What are the early and late manifestations on auscultation of floppy valve syndrome?

47. What is this murmur? Murmur Image

48. What is this murmur? Murmur Image

49. What is this murmur? Murmur Image

50. What is this murmur? Murmur Image

51. What is shown left, middle and right? Valve Pathology Image

1. Which of the following are characteristics of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?

Commonest, slowly progressive, presents at late stage with flabby 4 chamber dilatation & mural thrombi, systolic dysfunction, and LV ejection fraction <40% Irregular hypertrophy of the left ventricle, autosomal dominant inheritance Normal-sized chambers that are stiff, leading to diastolic dysfunction Thickened myocardium with high stroke volume

2. What percentage of Dilated Cardiomyopathy cases are familial, and what is a common genetic cause?

~30%, β-myosin mutation ~50%, Dystrophin gene mutation ~50%, Dystrophin – cytoskeleton abnormality ~70%, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

3. Which of the following can be considered secondary causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?

Peripartum, Alcohol, infections (viral), iron overload, Adriamycin, Doxorubicin Genetic mutations only Hypertension and ischemic heart disease Myocarditis due to bacterial infections

4. What is a significant characteristic of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy?

LV hypertrophy and systolic dysfunction Thin, dilated right ventricle with myocytes replaced by fibro-fatty tissue Fixed obstruction of the right ventricle Left ventricular dilation with mural thrombi

5. What is the main structural characteristic of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

Irregular hypertrophy of the left ventricle, particularly the septum, leading to a narrowed "banana" shape lumen Simultaneous contraction of all heart chambers Normal-sized ventricular walls with fibrosis Concentric hypertrophy with no functional impairment

6. What is the genetic inheritance pattern of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

100% genetic, Autosomal Dominant Multifactorial with environmental triggers X-linked recessive inheritance Sporadic; no family history

7. What type of dysfunction is primarily associated with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

Systolic dysfunction leading to low LV ejection fraction Diastolic dysfunction resulting in low stroke volume Mixed systolic and diastolic dysfunction Isolated atrial dysfunction

8. What defines Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?

Increased chamber size with systolic dysfunction Normal size but stiff myocardium leading to diastolic dysfunction Significant hypertrophy of the myocardial walls Progressive dilation of both ventricles

9. Which of the following is a cause of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?

Amyloidosis, Endomyocardial fibrosis, Idiopathic fibrosis Chronic hypertension Dilated cardiomyopathy Aortic stenosis

10. What is a common complication associated with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy in young individuals?

Sudden cardiac death Congestive heart failure Peripheral edema Recurrent syncope

### Short Answer Questions (SAs) ```html

11. What are the microscopy findings in Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?

What type of heart failure causes sudden cardiac death in young people?

What are 3 causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy?

12. What is one characteristic of Endocardial Fibrosis in Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?

13. List three causes or types of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy.

14. What are some complications associated with Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)?

Cholesterol has various roles in the body. Which of the following is a true statement about cholesterol?

What determines the function of lipoproteins like HDL and LDL?

The size of the lipoprotein molecule. Apolipoproteins. The amount of cholesterol contained in the lipoprotein. The type of fatty acids present in the lipoprotein.

Which apolipoprotein is associated with reverse cholesterol uptake in HDL?

ApoA ApoB ApoC ApoE

In the process of exogenous triglyceride movement, which of the following is the correct sequence?

Chylomicrons lose triglycerides, form remnants, and enter the liver. Dietary fat enters plasma as VLDL. Triglycerides from HDL are transferred to chylomicrons for delivery to tissues. Liver produces VLDL and releases it into plasma for uptake by macrophages.

In endogenous triglyceride movement, what happens after VLDL exchanges triglycerides for apoC from HDL?

VLDL becomes IDL or LDL after losing triglycerides through LPL action. VLDL is transformed into chylomicrons. VLDL exits the bloodstream and enters the liver without modification. VLDL deposits triglycerides into the muscle and adipose tissue.

Which of the following conditions can disrupt normal triglyceride movement in or out of plasma?

Diabetes (insulin resistance impairs LPL function). Healthy kidneys (no effect on triglyceride metabolism). Nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria leads to increased plasma oncotic pressure). All of the above.

How is LDL receptor (LDL-R) expression regulated?

By the amount of cholesterol in the liver; high cholesterol reduces LDL-R expression. By cholesterol homeostasis and the SREBP pathway, where low cholesterol increases LDL-R expression. By the type of dietary fats consumed in the diet. By genetic mutations affecting cholesterol synthesis.

Which three types of lipid abnormalities promote atherogenesis?

Increased LDL, abnormal LDL, decreased HDL. Increased HDL, abnormal HDL, increased triglycerides. Decreased LDL, abnormal triglycerides, decreased HDL. Increased triglycerides, increased VLDL, abnormal HDL.

What factors favor LDL uptake via macrophage scavenger receptors?

Low LDL-R expression and abnormal LDL (oxidized, glycosylated). High HDL levels and normal LDL. Low triglyceride levels in plasma and reduced LDL. Normal HDL and LDL receptors.

What are the steps involved in reverse cholesterol transport?

ApoA1 enables cholesterol uptake from peripheral cells, activates LCAT, and offloads cholesterol to VLDL and LDL for liver excretion. LDL takes cholesterol from VLDL and brings it to peripheral cells. HDL takes cholesterol from the liver and brings it to peripheral cells. Cholesterol is converted into bile and excreted by HDL.

What is the genetic defect associated with Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

Defective LDL receptor (autosomal dominant). Defective apoA1 (autosomal recessive). Defective HDL (X-linked recessive). Defective LPL (autosomal dominant).

What are the clinical features of Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

Early atherosclerosis and xanthomas. Statin therapy is initiated by age 10. Early atherosclerosis and xanthomas, statin therapy initiated by age 10. No clinical features unless advanced, statin therapy initiated by age 20. Only xanthomas, no early atherosclerosis.

What are the complications of Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

Ischemic Heart Disease (IHD). Ischemic Heart Disease (IHD). Stroke. Liver failure.

Who should be screened for cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk?

Individuals ≥45yo (≥35yo if diabetic, ≥30yo if ATSI). Individuals ≥45yo (≥35yo if diabetic, ≥30yo if ATSI). All individuals under 60 years old. Only those who show symptoms of CVD.

Who is considered 'high risk' for cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

Existing CVD, diabetes >60yo, diabetes with microalbuminuria, CKD, FH, BP ≥180/110, total cholesterol >7.5, ATSI >74yo. Existing CVD, diabetes >60yo, diabetes with microalbuminuria, CKD, FH, BP ≥180/110, total cholesterol >7.5, ATSI >74yo. Only people with existing cardiovascular disease. People under 45 with no known risk factors.

What should be the first-line treatment for patients with high cholesterol?

Statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors). Statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors). Ezetimibe. Omega-3 fatty acids.

What is the primary goal of therapy for Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

Lowering LDL cholesterol levels to reduce cardiovascular risk. Reducing triglycerides. Increasing HDL cholesterol levels. Reducing total cholesterol levels.

What class of drugs is commonly used to lower LDL cholesterol in high-risk individuals?

Statins. Fibrates. Bile acid sequestrants. Niacin.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of statin therapy?

Muscle pain and weakness. Weight gain. Skin rashes. Increased heart rate.

What lifestyle change is recommended for individuals with high cholesterol?

Diet modification, exercise, and weight loss. Only diet modification and exercise. Only weight loss and medication. Only exercise and medication.

What is the recommended screening age for cardiovascular disease (CVD) in individuals with a family history of CVD?

Start screening 10 years earlier than the age of the earliest onset of CVD in the family. Start screening at age 40 for men and 50 for women. Only screen if symptoms appear. Screening is not necessary for individuals with a family history of CVD.

Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for cardiovascular disease?

Reducing smoking, controlling blood pressure, and managing cholesterol levels. Only reducing cholesterol levels. Taking aspirin daily. Increasing physical activity and taking statins.

What is the main function of the apolipoprotein B (apoB) protein?

It is a key component of VLDL, IDL, and LDL particles, helping with lipid transport. It activates lipoprotein lipase (LPL) to hydrolyze triglycerides. It helps in the conversion of HDL to LDL. It facilitates cholesterol uptake by liver cells.

What is the significance of HDL cholesterol in cardiovascular health?

HDL removes excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and is protective against atherosclerosis. HDL removes excess cholesterol from the bloodstream and is protective against atherosclerosis. HDL is harmful and increases the risk of cardiovascular disease. HDL has no impact on cardiovascular health.

What is the role of lipoprotein lipase (LPL) in lipid metabolism?

LPL hydrolyzes triglycerides in chylomicrons and VLDL, enabling their uptake by tissues. LPL facilitates the breakdown of cholesterol in HDL particles. LPL converts LDL into VLDL particles. LPL helps in the synthesis of triglycerides in the liver.

What is the mechanism by which oxidized LDL contributes to the development of atherosclerosis?

Oxidized LDL penetrates the endothelial layer and binds to scavenger receptors on macrophages, leading to foam cell formation. Oxidized LDL penetrates the endothelial layer and binds to scavenger receptors on macrophages, leading to foam cell formation. Oxidized LDL stimulates the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from endothelial cells. Oxidized LDL promotes the synthesis of HDL, which is protective against atherosclerosis.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between insulin resistance and lipoprotein metabolism in the context of cardiovascular disease?

Insulin resistance increases triglyceride synthesis and decreases lipoprotein lipase (LPL) activity, contributing to elevated VLDL and triglyceride levels. Insulin resistance increases triglyceride synthesis and decreases lipoprotein lipase (LPL) activity, contributing to elevated VLDL and triglyceride levels. Insulin resistance leads to a reduction in cholesterol synthesis and a decrease in LDL receptor activity. Insulin resistance increases HDL levels while decreasing LDL and VLDL levels.

How does nephrotic syndrome lead to lipid abnormalities?

Nephrotic syndrome leads to proteinuria, resulting in reduced plasma oncotic pressure, which triggers compensatory production of VLDL and hyperlipidemia. Nephrotic syndrome leads to proteinuria, resulting in reduced plasma oncotic pressure, which triggers compensatory production of VLDL and hyperlipidemia. Nephrotic syndrome directly increases HDL production due to liver dysfunction. Nephrotic syndrome inhibits cholesterol uptake by the liver, leading to a decrease in circulating LDL.

In the pathophysiology of Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH), how does a defective LDL receptor affect cholesterol homeostasis?

A defective LDL receptor impairs the liver's ability to clear LDL from the bloodstream, leading to elevated plasma cholesterol levels. A defective LDL receptor impairs the liver's ability to clear LDL from the bloodstream, leading to elevated plasma cholesterol levels. A defective LDL receptor increases cholesterol synthesis in the liver and decreases LDL levels. A defective LDL receptor leads to enhanced HDL cholesterol production.

What is the role of the SREBP pathway in regulating cholesterol levels in the liver?

The SREBP pathway is activated when cellular cholesterol levels are low, leading to increased expression of LDL receptors and increased cholesterol uptake. The SREBP pathway is activated when cellular cholesterol levels are low, leading to increased expression of LDL receptors and increased cholesterol uptake. The SREBP pathway reduces cholesterol synthesis in response to high dietary cholesterol levels. The SREBP pathway inhibits LDL receptor activity to prevent excess cholesterol uptake.

Which of the following is the most likely consequence of high triglyceride levels on HDL function?

Elevated triglycerides reduce HDL functionality by enhancing CETP activity, leading to the transfer of triglycerides to HDL, impairing its protective properties. Elevated triglycerides reduce HDL functionality by enhancing CETP activity, leading to the transfer of triglycerides to HDL, impairing its protective properties. Elevated triglycerides increase HDL functionality by promoting the exchange of cholesterol with VLDL particles. Elevated triglycerides have no effect on HDL functionality.

Which of the following is true regarding the role of apolipoprotein A1 (apoA1) in reverse cholesterol transport?

ApoA1 promotes the transfer of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to HDL and activates LCAT to convert free cholesterol into esterified cholesterol. ApoA1 promotes the transfer of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to HDL and activates LCAT to convert free cholesterol into esterified cholesterol. ApoA1 is responsible for promoting the uptake of cholesterol into peripheral tissues. ApoA1 enhances LDL uptake in the liver by promoting LDL receptor expression.

What is the primary cause of early atherosclerosis in Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH)?

The defective LDL receptor impairs the liver’s ability to clear LDL, leading to high LDL levels that promote plaque formation in arteries. The defective LDL receptor impairs the liver’s ability to clear LDL, leading to high LDL levels that promote plaque formation in arteries. High HDL levels in FH patients contribute to early atherosclerosis by promoting endothelial dysfunction. The increased production of VLDL in FH patients leads to early atherosclerosis by increasing triglyceride levels.

Which of the following is a consequence of chronic hyperglycemia in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus on lipid metabolism?

Chronic hyperglycemia decreases the activity of lipoprotein lipase (LPL), leading to the accumulation of triglycerides in peripheral tissues. Chronic hyperglycemia increases hepatic VLDL production and decreases lipoprotein lipase activity, leading to elevated triglycerides in the bloodstream. Chronic hyperglycemia decreases the synthesis of fatty acids in the liver, reducing triglyceride levels in the circulation. Chronic hyperglycemia enhances HDL synthesis, resulting in improved reverse cholesterol transport and lower cardiovascular risk.

What is the mechanism of action of PPAR agonists in cholesterol management?

How do fibrates lower cholesterol levels?

What is the mechanism of action of statins in cholesterol lowering?

How do PCSK9 inhibitors work to lower cholesterol levels?

Which of the following is the primary effect of PPAR agonists on cholesterol?

Increase LDL cholesterol Decrease triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol Increase HDL and decrease LDL cholesterol Decrease triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol

Which enzyme do statins inhibit to lower cholesterol levels?

ATP-citrate lyase HMG-CoA reductase HMG-CoA reductase ACAT

What receptor do fibrates primarily activate to help lower cholesterol?

PPARγ PPARα PPARβ RXR

What is the effect of PCSK9 inhibitors on LDL receptors?

Increase degradation of LDL receptors Increase the number of LDL receptors on liver cells Block LDL receptor activity Decrease synthesis of LDL receptors

What are common causes of increased LDL (LDL$^\ast$)?

What are common causes of abnormal LDL (LDL$^\dag$)?

What are common causes of decreased HDL (HDL$^\ddag$)?

Case Scenario:
A 69-year-old female with a history of breast cancer currently on oral contraceptives and recently underwent chemotherapy. She presents with complaints of calf pain, and subsequent imaging confirms a diagnosis of Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT).

1. What aspects of her history predispose her to DVT?

2. Which aspect/s of Virchow’s triad do these factors affect?

3. Describe the pathogenesis of DVT.

4. Which vein is most likely affected in this patient?

5. What clinical features might you expect to find while examining her leg?

6. How would you diagnose her with DVT based on the current presentation, and what risk assessment tool could you use to identify the need for further testing?

7. On the Wells criteria for DVT, what four factors score the highest? What scores the lowest?

8. What is the treatment protocol for unprovoked DVT, and how does this differ in cases of malignancy?

9. What is a contraindication to the standard treatment described above, and what alternative agent would you use?

10. What are three complications of DVT?

Case Scenario:
A 55-year-old male patient with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) presents to the emergency department with sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain that worsens with deep breathing. He has a history of recent surgery and is a current smoker. On examination, he is tachycardic, and his oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. A CT pulmonary angiography reveals a large embolus in the right main pulmonary artery.

1. What are the risk factors present in this patient that predispose him to Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

2. Which aspect/s of Virchow’s triad are most likely contributing to his condition?

3. Describe the pathophysiology of Pulmonary Embolism.

4. What are the common clinical signs and symptoms you would expect to find in a patient with PE?

5. What initial diagnostic tests would you order to confirm a diagnosis of PE?

6. What scoring system can be utilized to estimate the pre-test probability of PE in this patient, and what factors does it include?

7. What is the first-line treatment for acute Pulmonary Embolism with hemodynamic instability?

8. Describe the long-term management for a patient with a history of PE.

9. What are three potential complications of untreated Pulmonary Embolism?

1. Which of the following is a common cause of Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

Thrombus (DVT is the most common cause) Bacterial embolism Tumor embolism Pulmonary cement embolism

2. What is the primary pathophysiological consequence of Pulmonary Embolism?

Increased lung perfusion and reduced V/Q mismatch Occlusion of the pulmonary artery leading to decreased lung perfusion and ischemia distal to the clot Pulmonary artery occlusion causing decreased lung perfusion, increased dead space ventilation, and right ventricular strain Decreased CVP and improved cardiac output

3. In assessing for Pulmonary Embolism using Wells' criteria, what score indicates a high pre-test probability (PTP) for PE?

< 4 ≥ 4 = 2 > 6

4. What is the initial management strategy for a patient diagnosed with Pulmonary Embolism who is in shock?

Immediate anticoagulation Thrombolysis or clot retrieval Observation without medication Initiate prolonged bed rest and hydration

5. Which ECG finding is commonly associated with Pulmonary Embolism?

Normal sinus rhythm ST elevation in inferior leads S1Q3T3 pattern and T wave inversion in V1-V4 Left bundle branch block (LBBB)

6. Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated Pulmonary Embolism?

Post-thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension Myocardial ischemia Aortic dissection Pericarditis

1. Describe the 4-step pathogenesis of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD).

2. Describe the clinical features of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD).

Asymptomatic Intermittent claudication (exertional leg pain and weak/absent pulses) Chronic limb-threatening ischemia (CLTI) including ischemic rest pain and nonhealing ulcers All of the above

3. Differentiate between Class IIa and Class IIb in intermittent claudication.

4. What are the 6 P's of acute limb ischemia (ALI)?

What is the correct sequence in the pathogenesis of varicose veins?

Defective deep vein valves → venous backflow → ↑ venous pressure → dilatation and tortuosity of weak superficial veins. Venous stasis → increased pressure → inflammation → deep vein thrombosis. Arterial obstruction → reduced blood flow → increased venous pressure → varicosity. Capillary fragility → blood leakage → edema → varicose veins.

Which of the following are clinical features associated with varicose veins?

Distended veins, features of venous stasis including pain, pruritus, stasis dermatitis, and lipodermatosclerosis. Cyanosis, vesicular eruptions, and pulse disparity. Wounds, arterial ulcers, and mottled skin. Palpitations, varicocele, and intermittent claudication.

Which of the following are clinical features associated with Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)?

Painless, bleeding, pruritus; well-defined with pearly rolled borders; telangiectasia, arborising vessels; ±central ulceration; affects the face and neck. Painful, crusting lesions; irregular borders; typically found on the limbs. Flat, discolored patches; often found on the trunk; associated with significant itching. Rapidly growing nodules; often ulcerated; primarily affects the feet and hands.

Which of the following descriptions accurately reflects the microscopic features of Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)?

Pleomorphic and hyperchromatic basaloid cells with a well-defined edge; cleft between the neoplastic tissue and adjacent tissue; mucinous stroma. Uniform squamous cells with keratin pearls; inflammatory infiltrate surrounding the tumor. Atypical lymphocytes with prominent nucleoli; extensive necrosis within the tumor. Small, bland ductal structures; abundant fibrous stroma; no cleft formation.

Which of the following best describes the microscopic features of Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)?

Nests of squamous epithelial cells extending into the dermis; pleomorphic, eosinophilic and poorly differentiated cells; variable keratinisation; hyperchromatic nuclei with increased mitotic rate. Sheets of uniform cuboidal cells; extensive intercellular bridges; minimal nuclear atypia. Abundant keratin pearls; large, irregularly shaped nuclei; necrotic areas present. Well-differentiated glandular structures; small, hyperchromatic nuclei; low mitotic activity.

Which of the following are clinical features associated with Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)?

Bleeding; hyperkeratotic and crusted surface; ulcerative; affects the arms and head & neck. Smooth, raised, non-ulcerated nodules; primarily affects the trunk; no bleeding. Painful, red spots; occurs mainly on the legs; doesn’t bleed or crust. Flat, pigmented lesions; common on the face; no keratinization.

What is the ulcer-causing lesion seen in the image below?

Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) Melanoma Actinic Keratosis

A 67-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a severe unilateral headache that has been persistent for the last three days. On examination, the temporal artery on the affected side is thickened and tender to palpation. She also reports experiencing jaw claudication when chewing. Given the clinical features described, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

Giant Cell Arteritis Migraine Tension-type headache Cluster headache

In reviewing the patient's history, you note she has no significant past medical history but has presented with fatigue and unexplained weight loss. Upon further investigation, you request laboratory tests. Which of the following laboratory findings would you expect to see in this patient with suspected Giant Cell Arteritis?

Low ESR Elevated ESR Normal CRP Elevated hemoglobin

The patient undergoes a temporal artery biopsy, which reveals characteristic findings. What is the key microscopic feature you would expect to find in the biopsy of a temporal artery in a patient with Giant Cell Arteritis?

Granuloma giant cells Polyclonal plasma cell infiltrate Chronic inflammation with multinucleated giant cells Acute neutrophilic inflammation

While counseling the patient about the potential complications of Giant Cell Arteritis, you inform her of the most serious risk associated with this condition. What is the most serious complication associated with Giant Cell Arteritis that she should be aware of?

Cerebral ischemia Aortic aneurysm/dissection Permanent blindness Heart failure

Considering the pathogenesis of Giant Cell Arteritis, a fellow physician in your team expresses interest in the mechanism by which the blood vessels are affected. Which of the following mechanisms best describes the pathogenesis of Giant Cell Arteritis?

Activation of immune complexes leading to endothelial damage Macrophage fusion and granuloma formation around the vessel wall Antibody-mediated vascular damage Direct viral infection of endothelial cells

A 55-year-old male patient presents with fever, weight loss, and severe arthralgia. He has a history of chronic hepatitis B infection. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ESR and CRP, while ANCA is negative. Given these findings, which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is most likely responsible for his condition?

Immune complex deposition in medium-sized arteries leading to necrosis and ulceration Direct viral invasion of endothelial cells causing vasculitis Autoimmune destruction of vascular structures due to aberrant T-cell activation Antibody-mediated vasculitis triggered by viral surface antigens

The same patient undergoes a biopsy that shows a "string of pearls" appearance. What does this finding most accurately indicate in the context of Polyarteritis Nodosa?

Segmental inflammation of medium arteries with alternating areas of necrosis and normal tissue Chronic occlusive disease with fibrous intimal hyperplasia Arrangement of multiple aneurysms in a segment of an inflamed artery Parasitic infection leading to vascular obstruction

You suspect that the patient may develop complications due to his condition. Which of the following complications is most directly associated with Polyarteritis Nodosa?

Congestive heart failure due to left ventricular hypertrophy Mesenteric ischemia resulting from vasculitis of mesenteric arteries Myocardial infarction as a consequence of coronary artery involvement Pulmonary embolism secondary to deep vein thrombosis

Considering the demographics of Polyarteritis Nodosa, which of the following statements best reflects the epidemiology of this condition?

Occurs equally in males and females across all age groups More common in middle-aged men compared to women Predominantly affects older adults, particularly over 75 years More frequently seen in females, particularly during reproductive years

A 62-year-old female with known Polyarteritis Nodosa presents with acute abdominal pain and melena. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism contributing to her gastrointestinal symptoms?

Direct invasion of the gastrointestinal tract by viral pathogens Thrombosis due to hypercoagulable state secondary to chronic inflammation Ischemic injury to the bowel from inflammation and necrosis of mesenteric arteries Disruption of normal gut flora due to antibiotic use in previous treatment

A 52-year-old male presents with chronic sinusitis, hemoptysis, and renal impairment. Laboratory analysis reveals positive PR3-ANCA and elevated ESR. What is the most likely pathophysiological process leading to his condition?

Direct viral infection of small and medium-sized vessels exacerbating inflammation ANCA-mediated neutrophil activation resulting in necrotizing vasculitis and granuloma formation Molecular mimicry between bacterial antigens and self-antigens causing autoimmune activation Aberrant T-cell response leading to systemic vasculitis without the involvement of ANCA

During a pathology review of a lung biopsy from a patient with Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis, which microscopic feature would be most characteristic of the disease?

Diffuse alveolar damage with hyaline membranes Segmental transmural necrotizing inflammation with giant cell formation Necrotizing granulomas with mixed inflammatory infiltrate, predominantly neutrophils Fibrous intimal hyperplasia of small arteries with luminal narrowing

A patient diagnosed with GPA presents with nasal deformities including saddle nose. Which underlying mechanism most directly contributes to this specific clinical feature?

Direct destruction of bone by opportunistic infections Chronic tissue ischemia due to vascular occlusion primarily affecting nasal cartilages Granulomatous inflammation causing necrosis and structural collapse of nasal tissues Post-surgical complications secondary to repeated nasal surgeries for chronic sinusitis

In evaluating the common complications of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis, which of the following complications is least likely to be directly related to the inflammatory processes characteristic of the disease?

Saddle nose deformity resulting from structural collapse of nasal bridge Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis leading to end-stage renal disease Pulmonary fibrosis resulting from chronic inflammatory damage Bacterial superinfection in necrotizing vasculitis lesions

A 48-year-old patient with GPA presents with worsening respiratory symptoms and a recent chest X-ray shows cavitary lung lesions. What does this indicate about the potential complications of his disease?

The presence of air-filled cavities is indicative of an infectious etiology such as tuberculosis Cavitary lesions are typically benign and may resolve spontaneously without treatment Cavitary lesions can represent necrotizing lung involvement associated with granulomatous inflammation Cavitation implies a poor prognosis and corresponds to extensive systemic vasculitis

A 45-year-old male smoker presents with claudication and migratory superficial thrombophlebitis. During the examination, you note that he exhibits Raynaud phenomenon. Given these findings, what type of immune-mediated process is most likely contributing to his condition?

Type II hypersensitivity reaction involving anti-endothelial antibodies Type IV hypersensitivity reaction leading to delayed-type tissue damage Hypersensitivity reaction (possibly similar to cell-mediated immunity) secondary to tobacco exposure Autoimmune response involving circulating immune complexes affecting vessel walls

During a lecture, you learn about the pathological features of Thromboangiitis Obliterans. Which of the following microscopic findings would you consider most characteristic of TAO?

Lymphocytic infiltrate with fibrin deposition in large ischemic arteries Segmental inflammation, thrombosis, and luminal narrowing of small to medium arteries Endothelial cell proliferation leading to vascular occlusion Granulomatous infiltration of surrounding tissues with necrotizing features

A patient diagnosed with Thromboangiitis Obliterans complains of worsening limb pain and has developed non-healing ulcers. What is the most significant long-term complication you should be monitoring for in this patient?

Thrombosis leading to transient ischemic attacks Limb amputation due to severe ischemia and necrosis Development of chronic venous insufficiency Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis

Consider a 38-year-old male with symptoms typical of Thromboangiitis Obliterans. What investigation is most critical for establishing the diagnosis, considering TAO is a diagnosis of exclusion?

Exclude other causes of peripheral vascular disease, as there are no definitive laboratory tests Positive test for antiphospholipid antibodies Elevated serum markers for vasculitis (e.g., ESR, CRP) indicating systemic disease Angiographic evidence of occlusion in large arteries

A clinical study on the demographics of Thromboangiitis Obliterans indicates significant male predominance. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the significance of this demographic?

The gender ratio reflects differing susceptibility to autoimmune diseases Tobacco use is more prevalent among males, correlating with the disease's strong association with smoking Genetic predisposition observed in men suggests hereditary mechanisms Hormonal differences in females provide a protective effect against vascular inflammation

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with a 2-week history of abdominal pain, palpable purpura on his legs, and episodes of hematuria. Considering the common precipitating factor for IgA Vasculitis, what recent event in the patient's history is most likely associated with his condition?

A recent diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus A preceding upper respiratory tract infection An insect bite in the week prior to symptom onset Recent vaccination against varicella

Upon examination, the child exhibits palpable purpura, primarily on the buttocks and legs. In the context of this condition, what is the most likely underlying tissue change observed in skin biopsies?

Fibrin deposition in the vascular walls of larger blood vessels Leukocytoclastic vasculitis with predominant IgA/C3 complex deposition in small vessels Granulomatous inflammation targeting small venules Dense plasma cell infiltrate within the dermis

The boy's renal investigations reveal hematuria and proteinuria. Which of the following findings would most strongly indicate the presence of IgA Vasculitis affecting the kidneys?

Elevated serum creatinine with normal urine output Mesangial IgA deposition identified on renal biopsy Presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies in the serum Significant elevations in anti-streptolysin O titers

Complications of IgA Vasculitis can include severe gastrointestinal manifestations. Which of the following represents a critical gastrointestinal complication that could arise in this patient?

Appendicitis requiring surgical intervention Electrolyte imbalance due to renal insufficiency Intussusception due to mesenteric involvement and edema Bowel obstruction from adhesions

When diagnosing IgA Vasculitis, it is critical to differentiate it from other forms of vasculitis. Which statement best highlights the distinguishing feature of IgA Vasculitis that informs its diagnosis?

The presence of elevated ANCA levels Detection of IgA deposition in small vessels on biopsy The characteristic skin lesions of palpable purpura that follow a specific distribution A positive response to systemic corticosteroid therapy within 48 hours

A 3-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a high fever persisting for 6 days, along with conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, and a rash. What aspect of his presentation is most unique to Kawasaki Disease compared to other childhood febrile illnesses?

Papulopustular rash that responds to antibiotics Painless conjunctivitis without purulent discharge Classic rubella-like rash that blanches on pressure Severe oral ulceration with systemic herpes infection

The patient’s laboratory findings show elevated white blood cell counts and platelets, with an increase in inflammatory markers. What pathophysiological mechanism might explain the elevated platelet count observed in Kawasaki Disease?

Iron deficiency leading to reactive thrombocytosis Inflammatory cytokine release stimulating megakaryocyte production Direct bone marrow infiltration by inflammatory cells Systemic infection causing hypercoagulability

Upon examination, you notice that the child has developed a "strawberry" tongue. Which of the following statements best explains the pathologic process leading to this clinical feature in Kawasaki Disease?

Fungal infection causing mucosal hyperplasia Vascular inflammation resulting in mucosal edema and desquamation Lymphocytic infiltration and inflammation leading to vascular and tissue edema Nutritional deficiency leading to glossitis and inflammation

Detailed echocardiography reveals the presence of coronary artery aneurysms in this patient. What is the most significant long-term risk associated with these aneurysms if left untreated?

Immediate cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation Risk of myocardial infarction due to obstruction or rupture of the aneurysm A gradual reduction in ejection fraction over time Development of systemic hypertension due to altered hemodynamics

A 4-year-old girl diagnosed with Kawasaki Disease is being treated with intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) and high-dose aspirin. What is the primary mechanism by which IVIG exerts therapeutic effects in this condition?

Direct inhibition of platelet aggregation Modulation of the immune response through competitive inhibition of Fc receptors Promotion of endothelial proliferation and repair Antiviral activity reducing the viral load and inflammation

During follow-up, you monitor this patient for complications associated with Kawasaki Disease. Which complication would you regard as most urgent to identify and manage during the acute phase of the illness?

Moderate dehydration from fever and inadequate fluid intake Acute cholecystitis due to biliary tract dilation Coronary artery aneurysm leading to myocardial ischemia Gastroenteritis from viral transmission

In understanding the epidemiology of Kawasaki Disease, which of the following factors is most strongly associated with an increased incidence of the condition?

Recent travel to tropical climates Male sex, particularly in children under five years of age History of transient viral hepatitis in the patient Exposure to secondhand smoke during the first year of life

A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with sudden-onset severe chest pain described as "ripping" and radiating to his back. Considering his age and symptoms, what is the most likely demographic factor contributing to his risk of aortic dissection?

Female sex Age under 60 years Age over 60 years History of congenital heart disease

In a patient with suspected aortic dissection, which of the following is the most significant risk factor historically associated with the development of this condition?

Chronic hypertension Hyperlipidemia Diabetes Mellitus Cigarette smoking

In the setting of aortic dissection, what mechanism is chiefly responsible for the formation of an intimal tear?

Mechanical trauma to the aorta Inflammation of the tunica media Cystic medial degeneration leading to a weakened vessel wall Atherosclerotic plaque rupture

What is the most common morphology observed at the site of an aortic dissection, specifically regarding the affected arterial wall?

Thrombosis and fibrotic remodeling Transmural necrosis with inflammation Accumulation of blood within the tunica media causing false lumen formation Partial vascular occlusion due to foreign body reaction

A patient with a suspicious chest pain undergoes imaging studies. What finding on chest X-ray would be highly suggestive of aortic dissection?

Cardiomegaly Normal cardiac silhouette Widened mediastinum greater than 8 cm Clear lung fields without effusion

During an examination, you notice a difference in blood pressure measurements in the arms of a patient diagnosed with aortic dissection. Which phenomenon does this discrepancy most likely indicate?

Peripheral vascular resistance changes Differences in brachial artery anatomy Disruption of the aortic arch compromising blood flow to the affected arm Normal physiological variation between limbs

What underlying pathological change in the aorta is responsible for the vascular complications encountered during aortic dissection?

Hypertrophy of the vascular wall Loss of elasticity and strength due to collagen degeneration Cystic medial degeneration leading to weakening of the aortic wall Normal age-related atherosclerotic changes

In managing a patient with a Stanford Type A aortic dissection, what immediate action is indicated, given the high risk of mortality?

Initiate anticoagulation therapy Administer high-dose antihypertensive medication Urgent surgical intervention to repair the aorta Schedule for elective cardiac catheterization

A 45-year-old woman presents with fever, weight loss, fatigue, rashes, raised inflammatory markers, and abnormal urinalysis. Given the constellation of symptoms, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

Acute bacterial endocarditis Systemic vasculitis Infective endocarditis Sarcoidosis

Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) primarily affects which of the following organs?

Kidney Lung Heart Liver

Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is closely associated with which of the following conditions?

Hepatitis C virus (HCV) Hepatitis B virus (HBV) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Tuberculosis (TB)

Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) primarily affects which type of arteries?

Large elastic arteries Muscular arteries Arterioles Venules

What is the most common cause of venous ulcers?

Varicose veins (90%) Deep vein thrombosis (90%) Arterial insufficiency (80%) Diabetes mellitus (80%)

A person has a dark ulcer and experiences extreme pain on elevation. Which of these is another feature you would expect?

Does not bleed on touch Profuse bleeding on touch Warm surrounding skin Painless upon compression

A person has a neuropathic ulcer with a clean, deep caving appearance and surrounding callus. Which of the following is another expected feature?

Probing leads to brisk bleeding Extremely painful on touch Located on the shin and upper leg Completely normal sensation

What are the two types of true aneurysm?

Saccular and Fusiform Dissecting and Mycotic Pseudoaneurysm and Fusiform Atherosclerotic and Traumatic

Which of the following is a complication of an aneurysm?

Stasis, Thrombosis, and Rupture Fibrosis, Calcification, and Hyperplasia Ischemia, Hypertension, and Edema Necrosis, Vasodilation, and Hemorrhage

Which of the following is the most common pathogenesis of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?

Inflammatory AAA IgG4-related aortitis Infective (Mycotic) AAA Traumatic AAA

Which type of aneurysm is most commonly associated with Marfan syndrome or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

Thoracic aneurysm Abdominal aortic aneurysm Popliteal aneurysm Cerebral (Berry) aneurysm

A patient presents with chronic sinusitis, hemoptysis, and hematuria. A renal biopsy shows crescentic glomerulonephritis, and serology reveals P-ANCA positivity. Which of the following best describes the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?

Necrotizing granulomas and necrotizing polyangiitis affecting small blood vessels Non-necrotizing granulomas with eosinophilic infiltration Immune complex deposition in medium-sized arteries Large vessel vasculitis with aortic involvement

True or False: There is ANCA positivity in Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN).

True False

Which of the following is a clinical feature most commonly associated with Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (AAS)?

Recurrent venous thrombosis and repeated miscarriages Severe joint pain and skin rashes Chronic fatigue and anemia Hepatomegaly and jaundice

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Which laboratory finding is characteristic of Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (AAS) in the context of prolonged PTT?

Prolonged PTT that remains prolonged even after adding 50% normal plasma Decreased platelet count and prolonged PT Elevated fibrinogen levels with normal PTT Isolated prolonged thrombin time

What is the main difference between primary and secondary Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome (AAS)?

Primary AAS occurs without association with other disorders, while secondary AAS is linked to autoimmune disorders or drugs Secondary AAS is more common in adults, while primary AAS occurs primarily in children Primary AAS is associated with recurrent miscarriages, while secondary AAS is linked to deep vein thrombosis Secondary AAS is diagnosed based on clinical features, while primary AAS is diagnosed only through laboratory tests

1. 16-year-old with episodic palpitations while playing sport and while studying at his desk. ECG shows?

ATRIAL RHYTHM HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY JUNCTIONAL RHYTHM NORMAL SINUS RHYTHM WPW PATTERN

2. Hypertrophy diagnosis?

RAA LAA RVH LVH Combination HCM

3. 84-year-old woman with recent chest pain after meals relieved by antacids. ECG shows large Q waves in AVR and V1. These Q waves most likely represent:

COPD LEFT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY NORMAL VARIANT PREVIOUS INFERIOR MI PREVIOUS SEPTAL MI

4. Hypertrophy diagnosis?

RAA LAA RVH LVH Combination

5. A 22-year-old woman with COVID complains of anterior chest pain, worse when lying down. ECG shows. The most likely diagnosis is:

ANTERIOR STEMI INFERIOR STEMI LEFT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY PERICARDITIS PERICARDIAL TAMPONADE

6. A 56-year-old woman develops tachycardia, hypotension, and respiratory distress day 1 post mitral valve replacement. ECG shows. The most likely cause of her deterioration is:

ANTERIOR STEMI INFERIOR STEMI LEFT HEART FAILURE PERICARDIAL TAMPONADE RIGHT HEART FAILURE

7. Hypertrophy diagnosis?

RAA LAA RVH LVH Combination

8. Hypertrophy diagnosis?

RAA LAA RVH LVH HCM

9. An 86-year-old woman presents to her GP for a repeat script of ramipril. A routine ECG is performed. The appearance of her ECG is consistent with:

ACUTE PERICARDITIS ANTERIOR STEMI LEFT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY NSTEMI RIGHT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY

10. Hypertrophy diagnosis?

RAA LAA RVH LVH RVH

1. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ECG FEATURES IS MOST CONSISTENT WITH HYPERCALCAEMIA?

PROLONGED PR INTERVAL ST SEGMENT DEPRESSION SHORTENED QT INTERVAL TALL, PEAKED T WAVES WIDE QRS COMPLEX

2. WHICH OF THESE IS A CAUSE OF ST SEGMENT DEPRESSION?

ACUTE MYOCARDITIS ACUTE PERICARDITIS HYPERCALCAEMIA MYOCARDIAL ISCHAEMIA VENTRICULAR ANEURYSM

3. 84-YEAR-OLD WOMAN COMPLAINS OF EIGHT HOURS OF CHEST HEAVINESS AND WORSENING SHORTNESS OF BREATH. SHE HAS A BACKGROUND HISTORY OF DIABETES, HYPERTENSION, AND SLE. AN ECG IS PERFORMED AND IS SHOWN IN IMAGE 1. THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS IS:

ANTEROLATERAL STEMI HYPERKALAEMIA INFEROLATERAL STEMI PERICARDITIS POSTERIOR STEMI

4. A 68-YEAR-OLD MAN IS BROUGHT IN BY HIS FAMILY TEN WEEKS POST ANTERIOR STEMI. HE IS COMPLAINING OF GRADUALLY WORSENING EXERCISE TOLERANCE, PALPITATIONS AND SHORTNESS OF BREATH. AN ECG IS PERFORMED AND IS SHOWN IN IMAGE 2. THE MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS IS:

ACUTE CORONARY SYNDROME DRESSLER SYNDROME HYPERCALCAEMIA PERICARDIAL TAMPONADE VENTRICULAR ANEURYSM

5. WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING ECG FEATURES WOULD BE SUPPORTIVE OF A DIAGNOSIS OF AN INFERIOR STEMI?

A NEW LEFT BUNDLE BRANCH BLOCK ST DEPRESSION IN II, III AND AVF ST DEPRESSION IN I, AVL AND V2 ST ELEVATION IN V5, V6, I AND AVL TALL R WAVES IN V1-V3

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1. Which of these are causes of Tall T waves (>5mm in Limb leads, >10mm in chest leads)?

Hypokalemia, Acute pericarditis Hyperkalaemia, Acute transmural MI Left ventricular hypertrophy, Aortic stenosis Myocardial ischemia, Atrial fibrillation

2. What are prominent U waves a sign of?

Hypercalcemia Myocarditis Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia

3. What do inverted U waves represent?

Left bundle branch block Hypotension Hyperkalemia Myocardial ischemia

4. What is the commonest form of atrial flutter?

Clockwise reentry producing positive flutter waves in leads II, III, aVF Anticlockwise reentry producing positive flutter waves in leads II, III, aVF Multifocal reentry producing chaotic flutter waves in leads I, II, III Anticlockwise reentry producing negative flutter waves in leads II, III, aVF

5. What is the average lifetime risk over age 40 of AF?

1 in 10 1 in 5 1 in 4 1 in 2

5. A man has AF for 30 hours which spontaneously reverts, what is this called?

Persistent AF Paroxysmal AF Long-standing AF Permanent AF

6. A woman has AF >1 year, they are planning to try an ablation on Tuesday. Classify her AF?

Paroxysmal AF Long-standing persistent Long-standing persistent Persistent AF

7. A man has had AF for 8 days, what is this classified as?

Paroxysmal AF Persistent AF Long-standing AF Permanent AF

8. What are the criteria for AV nodal (Junctional) Ectopic beats?

Wide QRS, No P wave, followed by compensatory pause Narrow QRS, either 1. No p-wave or 2. retrograde p wave, occurring before, during, or after QRS, occurs sooner than would be expected for next sinus impulse, followed by compensatory pause Narrow QRS, with P wave after QRS complex, occurs with a longer than expected interval Wide QRS, retrograde P waves, followed by compensatory pause

9. How can you tell if it is junctional tachycardia rather than something else?

Sudden onset, narrow complex, absent or retrograde P waves, 100-140 BPM Gradual onset, broad complex, absent or retrograde P waves, 100-140 BPM Gradual onset, absent or retrograde P waves, narrow complex, 100-140 BPM Sudden onset, wide complex, retrograde P waves, 140-160 BPM

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